CPTIA Question Explanations & CPTIA Real Sheets

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CREST Practitioner Threat Intelligence Analyst Sample Questions (Q93-Q98):

NEW QUESTION # 93
Which of the following tools helps incident handlers to view the file system, retrieve deleted data, perform timeline analysis, web artifacts, etc., during an incident response process?

A. Process Explorer
B. nblslal
C. netstat
D. Autopsy

Answer: D

Explanation:
Autopsy is a digital forensics platform and graphical interface to The Sleuth Kit and other digital forensics tools. It is used by law enforcement, military, and corporate examiners to investigate what happened on a computer. Autopsy enables incident handlers to view the file system, retrieve deleted data, perform timeline analysis, and analyze web artifacts, among other functionalities. This tool is particularly useful during the incident response process for conducting in-depth investigations into the nature of a security incident, identifying the methods used by attackers, and recovering lost or compromised data.
References:The EC-Council's Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) program covers digital forensic tools and techniques, highlighting the capabilities of Autopsy for supporting comprehensive incident investigations and response activities.
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NEW QUESTION # 94
QualTech Solutions is a leading security services enterprise. Dickson, who works as an incident responder with this firm, is performing a vulnerability assessment to identify the security problems in the network by using automated tools for identifying the hosts, services, and vulnerabilities in the enterprise network. In the above scenario, which of the following types of vulnerability assessment is Dickson performing?

A. Internal assessment
B. Passive assessment
C. Active assessment
D. External assessment

Answer: C

Explanation:
In the scenario described, Dickson is performing an active assessment. This type of vulnerability assessment involves using automated tools to actively scan and probe the network for identifying hosts, services, and vulnerabilities. Unlike passive assessments, which rely on monitoring network traffic without direct interaction with the targets, active assessments engage directly with the network infrastructure to discover vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and other security issues by sending data to systems and analyzing the responses. This approach provides a more immediate and detailed view of the security posture but can also generate detectable traffic that might be noticed by defensive systems or affect the performance of live systems.
References:The CREST CPTIA curriculum by EC-Council includes discussions on various methods of conducting vulnerability assessments, highlighting the differences between active and passive techniques, as well as the contexts in which each is most appropriately used.

NEW QUESTION # 95
Alice, an analyst, shared information with security operation managers and network operations center (NOC) staff for protecting the organizational resources against various threats. Information shared by Alice was highly technical and include threat actor TTPs, malware campaigns, tools used by threat actors, and so on.
Which of the following types of threat intelligence was shared by Alice?

A. Strategic threat intelligence
B. Operational threat intelligence
C. Technical threat intelligence
D. Tactical threat intelligence

Answer: D

Explanation:
The information shared by Alice, which was highly technical and included details such as threat actor tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs), malware campaigns, and tools used by threat actors, aligns with the definition of tactical threat intelligence. This type of intelligence focuses on the immediate, technical indicators of threats and is used bysecurity operation managers and network operations center (NOC) staff to protect organizational resources. Tactical threat intelligence is crucial for configuring security solutions and adjusting defense mechanisms to counteract known threats effectively.References:
* "Tactical Cyber Intelligence," Cyber Threat Intelligence Network, Inc.
* "Cyber Threat Intelligence for Front Line Defenders: A Practical Guide," by James Dietle

NEW QUESTION # 96
Which of the following types of digital evidence is temporarily stored in a digital device that requires constant power supply and is deleted if the power supply is interrupted?

A. Process memory
B. Event logs
C. Slack space
D. Swap file

Answer: A

Explanation:
Process memory (RAM) is a type of digital evidence that is temporarily stored and requires a constant power supply to retain information. If the power supply is interrupted, the information stored in process memory is lost. This type of evidence can include data about running programs, user actions, system events, and more, making it crucial for forensic analysis, especially in identifying actions taken by both users and malware.
Collecting data from process memory helps incident responders understand the state of the system at the time of an incident and can reveal valuable information that is not persisted elsewhere on the device.
References:Incident handling and response training, such as the CREST CPTIA program, emphasize the importance of collecting and analyzing volatile data, including process memory, to effectively investigate and respond to cybersecurity incidents.

NEW QUESTION # 97
A US Federal Agency network was the target of a DoS attack that prevented and impaired the normal authorized functionality of the networks. According to agency's reporting timeframe guidelines, this incident should be reported within 2 h of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing and the agency is unable to successfully mitigate the activity.
Which incident category of US Federal Agency does this incident belong to?

A. CAT 6
B. CAT 5
C. CAT 1
D. CAT 2

Answer: D

Explanation:
In the context of US Federal Agencies, incidents are categorized based on their impact on operations, assets, or individuals. A DoS attack that prevents or impairs the authorized functionality of networks and is still ongoing without successful mitigation efforts typically falls under Category 2 (CAT 2). This category is designated for incidents that have a significant impact, requiring immediate reporting and response. The reporting timeframe of within 2 hours as mentioned aligns with the urgency associated with CAT 2 incidents, emphasizing the need for swift action to address the attack and restore normal operations.References:US Federal incident response guidelines and the Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA)courses outline the categorization of cybersecurity incidents, detailing the response protocols for each category, including the reporting timeframes.

NEW QUESTION # 98
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